CNA Practice Test Illinois 2026 (Difficult)

Question 1 of 20

A resident is post-operative following a total hip replacement. Which of the following is a critical safety precaution for a CNA to maintain during positioning?

Following a total hip replacement, the legs must be kept in abduction (away from the midline) to prevent the prosthesis from dislocating. An abduction pillow or foam wedge is typically used.

Question 2 of 20

Which of the following sets of symptoms most accurately indicates that a resident with diabetes is experiencing hypoglycemia?

Hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) is often characterized by 'cold and clammy' skin, tremors, and neurological changes like confusion or irritability, which require immediate reporting to a nurse.

Question 3 of 20

When performing Passive Range of Motion (PROM) on a resident's shoulder, the CNA should:

PROM should never cause pain. Exercises must be stopped at the point of resistance or if the resident indicates discomfort to prevent injury to the joints and tissues.

Question 4 of 20

A resident is on 'Droplet Precautions' due to an infection. What is the minimum personal protective equipment (PPE) required before entering the room?

Droplet precautions require a surgical mask because the germs are spread through large respiratory droplets. Gloves are standard for most isolation rooms to prevent cross-contamination.

Question 5 of 20

A resident has a diagnosis of congestive heart failure (CHF). The nurse instructs you to measure their 'output.' Which of the following must be included?

Output includes all fluids that leave the body, such as urine, vomitus (emesis), diarrhea, and suctioned or drained fluids from wounds.

Question 6 of 20

A resident is experiencing 'sundowning.' Which intervention is most appropriate for a CNA to implement?

Sundowning is increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon/evening. Reducing stimulation, maintaining a routine, and providing a calm environment help manage the symptoms.

Question 7 of 20

When collecting a mid-stream (clean-catch) urine specimen from a female resident, the CNA must:

To ensure a 'clean catch,' the perineal area must be cleaned to remove surface bacteria, and the first part of the stream is voided into the toilet before collecting the middle portion.

Question 8 of 20

Which of the following is considered a 'Restraint Alternative'?

Restraint alternatives are non-physical methods used to keep residents safe while maintaining their freedom of movement. Bed alarms and easy access to the commode are common examples.

Question 9 of 20

A CNA finds a resident lying on the floor. After ensuring the resident is safe and the nurse has been notified, the CNA is asked to help with an incident report. What is the primary purpose of this report?

Incident reports (or occurrence reports) are internal tools used for quality improvement to analyze how an event happened and how to improve safety in the future.

Question 10 of 20

A resident with a Stage 2 pressure injury has skin that is:

Stage 2 involves partial-thickness skin loss. It looks like a shallow open ulcer or a blister. Stage 1 is non-blanchable redness with intact skin.

Question 11 of 20

While assisting a resident with a weak right side to walk using a gait belt, where should the CNA stand?

A CNA should stand on the resident's affected (weak) side and slightly behind them to provide the best support if the resident begins to fall.

Question 12 of 20

A resident's care plan states they have 'Dysphagia' and require 'Nectar Thick' liquids. Which of the following is NOT allowed?

Dysphagia means difficulty swallowing. Plain water is a 'thin' liquid and poses a high aspiration risk; all liquids must be thickened to the prescribed consistency.

Question 13 of 20

You are taking the blood pressure of a resident and the reading is 190/110. What is the first thing you should do?

This is a critically high blood pressure reading (hypertensive crisis) and must be reported to the nurse immediately for medical evaluation.

Question 14 of 20

Which of the following is a sign of severe dehydration in an elderly resident?

Dehydration in the elderly often presents as dark urine, decreased output, sunken eyes, dry mouth, and confusion.

Question 15 of 20

What is the first step in the 'RACE' protocol during a fire emergency?

RACE stands for Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish. The absolute first priority is always moving residents away from the immediate area of the fire.

Question 16 of 20

A resident is in the 'Active Phase' of dying. Which of the following senses is typically the last to go?

It is widely accepted in clinical practice that hearing is the last sense to leave a person as they approach death; therefore, you should continue to speak to the resident calmly.

Question 17 of 20

A resident tells you in confidence that they are planning to 'end it all' tonight. What is your legal and ethical responsibility?

Confidentiality does not apply when there is a threat of harm to self or others. Suicidal ideation must be reported immediately to ensure the resident's safety.

Question 18 of 20

When cleaning an indwelling urinary catheter, the CNA should:

Catheter care involves cleaning from the body outward (cleanest to dirtiest) to prevent introducing bacteria into the urinary tract.

Question 19 of 20

A resident refuses to let you perform their morning care, shouting 'Get out of here!' This is a change in their usual behavior. What should you do?

Residents have the right to refuse care. A sudden change in behavior or mood is also a clinical sign that must be reported to the nurse for assessment.

Question 20 of 20

The Ombudsman's primary role is to:

An Ombudsman is a state-appointed advocate who investigates and resolves complaints made by or on behalf of residents in long-term care facilities.

CNA Practice Test Illinois 2026 (Difficult)

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